GK Questions on Indian Constitution – MCQs for UPSC/SSC/BPSC

"Explore an extensive collection of Indian Constitution GK Questions MCQs for competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, BPSC, and more. Learn about important topics like judicial review, amendment procedures, Supreme Court powers, and constitutional provisions, with answers and explanations to boost your exam preparation."

GK Questions on Indian Constitution

🧠 Introduction

The Indian Constitution is the supreme law of India, and understanding its structure, features, and evolution is essential for every citizen — especially for aspirants of competitive exams. From the Preamble to the Fundamental Rights, and from Directive Principles to Amendments, the Constitution forms the backbone of most General Knowledge (GK) and Polity sections in exams.

📚 Importance of Indian Constitution in Competitive Exams

In national-level examinations like UPSC Civil Services, SSC CGL, BPSC, CDS, and Railway exams, questions related to the Constitution of India are asked regularly. These questions not only test a candidate’s memory but also their conceptual clarity and analytical ability. A strong grasp of the Constitution boosts performance in both Prelims (objective) and Mains (descriptive) stages.

Whether you're preparing for:

UPSC (IAS, IPS, CAPF, EPFO)
SSC Exams (CGL, CHSL, MTS)
State Public Service Commissions (like BPSC, MPPSC, MPSC)
CDS/NDA/Defence Services
Railway & Banking exams

you must be well-versed with constitutional provisions, key articles, and amendments.

📝 What to Expect in This Article

In this article, we provide topic-wise Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on the Indian Constitution along with:

✔️ 4 answer options for each question
✔️ Correct answer highlighted
✔️ Short explanation or trivia to boost understanding

These GK Questions MCQs are crafted for practice and revision, helping you stay exam-ready with clarity and confidence.

📘 Section 1: Indian Constitution – Basic Facts GK Questions MCQs

This section covers foundational questions such as the date of adoption, features, length, and key contributors to the framing of the Indian Constitution. These are frequently asked in UPSC, SSC, and state exams.

✅ 1. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

✔️ Answer: B. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a key role in drafting the Constitution, earning him the title “Father of the Indian Constitution”.

✅ 2. When was the Indian Constitution adopted?

A. 15th August 1947
B. 26th January 1950
C. 26th November 1949
D. 30th January 1950

✔️ Answer: C. 26th November 1949
Explanation: The Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.

✅ 3. How many members were there in the Constituent Assembly when it was formed?

A. 299
B. 389
C. 250
D. 352

✔️ Answer: B. 389
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly initially had 389 members, but after Partition, it was reduced to 299.

✅ 4. What is the total number of Articles in the Indian Constitution (as of 2025)?

A. 395
B. 448
C. 456
D. 465

✔️ Answer: B. 448
Explanation: Originally, there were 395 articles, but after several amendments, the total number of Articles has increased to 448 (as of 2025).

✅ 5. In how many parts is the Indian Constitution currently divided?

A. 20
B. 22
C. 25
D. 30

✔️ Answer: B. 22
Explanation: The Constitution is divided into 22 parts, although it originally had 22, some parts were added/modified later.

✅ 6. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

✔️ Answer: C. 12
Explanation: The Constitution originally had 8 Schedules, but now it has 12 Schedules after subsequent amendments.

✅ 7. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

A. B. R. Ambedkar
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Sardar Patel

✔️ Answer: B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly and later became the first President of India.

✅ 8. Which country’s Constitution influenced the Indian Constitution the most?

A. USA
B. UK
C. Canada
D. Ireland

✔️ Answer: B. UK
Explanation: While the Indian Constitution borrowed features from multiple countries, the British Parliamentary system had the most influence.

✅ 9. Which act served as the basis for the Constituent Assembly?

A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

✔️ Answer: D. Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
Explanation: The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 provided for the formation of the Constituent Assembly.

✅ 10. Who introduced the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly?

A. Sardar Patel
B. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Rajendra Prasad

✔️ Answer: C. Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: Nehru introduced the Objectives Resolution on 13th December 1946, which later formed the Preamble’s philosophy.

🛡️ Section 2: Fundamental Rights and Duties – GK Questions MCQs

This section focuses on Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution that deal with Fundamental Rights, as well as the Fundamental Duties added by the 42nd Amendment. These topics are frequently asked in all major exams like UPSC, SSC, BPSC, etc.

✅ 11. How many Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

✔️ Answer: B. 6
Explanation: Originally, there were 7 Fundamental Rights. The Right to Property was removed in 1978 (44th Amendment), leaving 6 Fundamental Rights.

✅ 12. Under which Article is the 'Right to Equality' provided?

A. Article 12
B. Article 14
C. Article 19
D. Article 21

✔️ Answer: B. Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of the laws.

✅ 13. The Right to Education is part of which Article?

A. Article 16
B. Article 19
C. Article 21A
D. Article 32

✔️ Answer: C. Article 21A
Explanation: Added by the 86th Amendment, Article 21A provides free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14.

✅ 14. Which Fundamental Right protects the freedom of speech?

A. Article 17
B. Article 18
C. Article 19
D. Article 20

✔️ Answer: C. Article 19
Explanation: Article 19 includes freedom of speech, expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession.

✅ 15. What is the remedy provided under Article 32?

A. Equality before law
B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Protection from arrest
D. Abolition of titles

✔️ Answer: B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Explanation: Article 32, called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution (as per Ambedkar), allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly in case of Fundamental Rights violations.

✅ 16. Who can enforce Fundamental Rights in India?

A. Parliament
B. President
C. Supreme Court and High Courts
D. Prime Minister

✔️ Answer: C. Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation: The Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) have the power to enforce Fundamental Rights.

✅ 17. Which Article abolishes untouchability?

A. Article 14
B. Article 15
C. Article 16
D. Article 17

✔️ Answer: D. Article 17
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.

✅ 18. Fundamental Duties are mentioned under which Article?

A. Article 39
B. Article 51A
C. Article 19
D. Article 48

✔️ Answer: B. Article 51A
Explanation: Fundamental Duties were added under Article 51A by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

✅ 19. How many Fundamental Duties are listed in the Constitution?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 9

✔️ Answer: B. 11
Explanation: Originally, there were 10 duties. The 11th duty was added by the 86th Amendment, related to education.

✅ 20. Which right was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights?

A. Right to Property
B. Right to Freedom of Religion
C. Right to Education
D. Right to Equality

✔️ Answer: A. Right to Property
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. It is now a legal right under Article 300A.

📜 Section 3: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) – GK Questions MCQs

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are guidelines for the state to establish a just society. These are non-justiciable (not enforceable in court) but fundamental in the governance of the country. Covered in Articles 36 to 51, DPSPs are often featured in UPSC, SSC, and other state exams.

✅ 21. The Directive Principles of State Policy are included in which part of the Constitution?

A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part V

✔️ Answer: C. Part IV
Explanation: Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) of the Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy.

✅ 22. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the Uniform Civil Code?

A. Article 44
B. Article 45
C. Article 40
D. Article 39

✔️ Answer: A. Article 44
Explanation: Article 44 directs the State to strive to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens.

✅ 23. Directive Principles are borrowed from the Constitution of which country?

A. United Kingdom
B. Ireland
C. USA
D. Australia

✔️ Answer: B. Ireland
Explanation: The concept of DPSPs was borrowed from the Irish Constitution, which itself was influenced by the Spanish Constitution.

✅ 24. Which of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Property
C. Equal pay for equal work
D. Freedom of Speech

✔️ Answer: C. Equal pay for equal work
Explanation: This is a Directive Principle under Article 39(d), aimed at promoting social and economic justice.

✅ 25. Which Article directs the State to provide free legal aid to poor and weaker sections?

A. Article 38
B. Article 39A
C. Article 41
D. Article 42

✔️ Answer: B. Article 39A
Explanation: Article 39A, added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, provides for free legal aid to ensure justice for all.

✅ 26. The promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in which Article?

A. Article 40
B. Article 41
C. Article 45
D. Article 51

✔️ Answer: D. Article 51
Explanation: Article 51 directs the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations.

✅ 27. Are Directive Principles enforceable in a court of law?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Only by Supreme Court
D. Only by President

✔️ Answer: B. No
Explanation: DPSPs are non-justiciable, which means they are not legally enforceable by any court.

✅ 28. The promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes and Tribes is under which Article?

A. Article 45
B. Article 46
C. Article 47
D. Article 48

✔️ Answer: B. Article 46
Explanation: Article 46 promotes the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs and other weaker sections.

✅ 29. Which amendment added the provision for free and compulsory education for children?

A. 42nd
B. 44th
C. 86th
D. 73rd

✔️ Answer: C. 86th
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added Article 21A and modified Article 45 to provide for free and compulsory education.

✅ 30. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle?

A. Right to form associations
B. Living wage for workers
C. Promotion of cottage industries
D. Protection of monuments

✔️ Answer: A. Right to form associations
Explanation: Right to form associations is a Fundamental Right under Article 19, not a Directive Principle.

Section 4: Preamble and Key Features of the Indian Constitution – GK Questions MCQs

The Preamble acts as the introduction and guiding philosophy of the Constitution. Along with it, the key features (like federalism, secularism, and fundamental rights) are frequently asked in prelims and mains of exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 31. Which of the following words is NOT present in the original Preamble?

A. Sovereign
B. Socialist
C. Democratic
D. Secular

✔️ Answer: B. Socialist
Explanation: The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

✅ 32. The Preamble declares India to be a...?

A. Federation
B. Union of States
C. Republic
D. All of the above

✔️ Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The Preamble defines India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic, and also mentions Union of States in the Constitution (Article 1).

✅ 33. The phrase "We, the people of India…" in the Preamble signifies...?

A. Federalism
B. Sovereignty lies with the people
C. Presidential system
D. Rule by elite

✔️ Answer: B. Sovereignty lies with the people
Explanation: This emphasizes that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

✅ 34. When was the Preamble of the Indian Constitution adopted?

A. 26th January 1950
B. 26th November 1949
C. 15th August 1947
D. 2nd October 1949

✔️ Answer: B. 26th November 1949
Explanation: The Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949, though it came into force on 26th January 1950.

✅ 35. Which Amendment added the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble?

A. 40th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 86th Amendment

✔️ Answer: B. 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added these three words to the Preamble during the Emergency period.

✅ 36. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution as described in the Preamble?

A. Unitary
B. Federal
C. Quasi-federal
D. Democratic

✔️ Answer: D. Democratic
Explanation: The Preamble declares India a Democratic Republic, ensuring universal adult suffrage and elected representatives.

✅ 37. What is the significance of the term "Republic" in the Preamble?

A. Government is hereditary
B. Head of State is elected
C. Parliamentary democracy
D. State religion is defined

✔️ Answer: B. Head of State is elected
Explanation: "Republic" means the President is elected, not a monarch or hereditary ruler.

✅ 38. What type of justice is ensured by the Indian Preamble?

A. Social
B. Economic
C. Political
D. All of the above

✔️ Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The Preamble promises Justice – social, economic, and political to all citizens.

✅ 39. Is the Preamble a part of the Constitution?

A. No
B. Yes, but not legally enforceable
C. Yes, and legally enforceable
D. It was removed later

✔️ Answer: B. Yes, but not legally enforceable
Explanation: The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, but not enforceable by courts.

✅ 40. Who is considered the "Father of the Indian Constitution"?

A. Rajendra Prasad
B. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Sardar Patel

✔️ Answer: B. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution.

🏛️ Section 5: Parliament and Its Structure – GK Questions MCQs

The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body and consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. Questions about its composition, powers, and procedures are frequently asked in UPSC, SSC, CDS, and state PSC exams.

✅ 41. The Indian Parliament consists of how many parts?

A. Two – Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B. Two – President and Lok Sabha
C. Three – President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
D. One – Only Lok Sabha

✔️ Answer: C. Three – President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Parliament of India includes the President, the Rajya Sabha (Upper House), and the Lok Sabha (Lower House).

✅ 42. The Lok Sabha is also known as...?

A. House of States
B. Upper House
C. Council of Ministers
D. House of the People

✔️ Answer: D. House of the People
Explanation: The Lok Sabha is called the House of the People, as its members are directly elected by the citizens of India.

✅ 43. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is...?

A. 545
B. 552
C. 530
D. 560

✔️ Answer: B. 552
Explanation: The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 members, including 530 from states, 20 from UTs, and 2 nominated (from Anglo-Indian community, if required).

✅ 44. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?

A. President of India
B. Vice-President
C. Prime Minister
D. Speaker

✔️ Answer: D. Speaker
Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the meetings of the house.

✅ 45. Rajya Sabha is also known as...?

A. Upper House
B. Lower House
C. Executive House
D. Presidential House

✔️ Answer: A. Upper House
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House of Parliament and represents the states.

✅ 46. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio...?

A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. Governor of Reserve Bank

✔️ Answer: C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

✅ 47. The minimum age to become a member of the Lok Sabha is...?

A. 21 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 35 years

✔️ Answer: B. 25 years
Explanation: 25 years is the minimum age required to contest Lok Sabha elections.

✅ 48. The maximum tenure of Lok Sabha is...?

A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years

✔️ Answer: C. 5 years
Explanation: The Lok Sabha has a tenure of 5 years, unless dissolved sooner.

✅ 49. Who summons the Parliament of India?

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Prime Minister
C. President of India
D. Vice President

✔️ Answer: C. President of India
Explanation: The President summons and prorogues Parliament and can dissolve the Lok Sabha.

✅ 50. What is a joint sitting of Parliament?

A. A combined session of all MLAs and MPs
B. A meeting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members together
C. A presidential press conference
D. Meeting of state legislatures

✔️ Answer: B. A meeting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members together
Explanation: A joint sitting is held to resolve disagreements on a bill between both Houses, presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.

📜 Section 6: Fundamental Duties – GK Questions MCQs

Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. These duties aim to promote a sense of responsibility among citizens. They are not enforceable by law but are important for the moral and civic conduct of citizens. Questions on this topic frequently appear in exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSC.

✅ 51. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in which part of the Constitution?

A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part IV-A
D. Part V

✔️ Answer: C. Part IV-A
Explanation: Part IV-A (Articles 51A) of the Constitution contains the Fundamental Duties.

✅ 52. How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Constitution?

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 11

✔️ Answer: C. 12
Explanation: Initially, there were 10 Fundamental Duties, but the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 added two more duties, making it a total of 12.

✅ 53. The first Fundamental Duty mentioned in Article 51A is...

A. To cherish and follow the noble ideals of the freedom struggle
B. To abide by the Constitution
C. To protect and improve the natural environment
D. To develop scientific temper

✔️ Answer: B. To abide by the Constitution
Explanation: The first duty is to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions.

✅ 54. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?

A. To protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
B. To safeguard public property
C. To practice non-violence
D. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood

✔️ Answer: C. To practice non-violence
Explanation: Non-violence is not listed as a Fundamental Duty, though it is an important value in Indian society.

✅ 55. Which Amendment introduced the Fundamental Duties into the Indian Constitution?

A. 44th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 52nd Amendment
D. 86th Amendment

✔️ Answer: B. 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of 1976 added Fundamental Duties as part of the Constitution under Article 51A.

✅ 56. Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty of Indian citizens?

A. To vote in elections
B. To participate in national defense
C. To protect wildlife
D. To pay taxes honestly

✔️ Answer: C. To protect wildlife
Explanation: Article 51A(g) mandates that it is a duty to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and wildlife.

✅ 57. The duty to provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 was added by which Amendment?

A. 44th Amendment
B. 86th Amendment
C. 45th Amendment
D. 73rd Amendment

✔️ Answer: B. 86th Amendment
Explanation: The 86th Amendment of 2002 added Article 21A, which made free and compulsory education a Fundamental Duty for children aged 6-14.

✅ 58. Which of the following is the duty of every citizen of India under the Fundamental Duties?

A. To respect the National Anthem
B. To promote the use of the national language
C. To develop patriotism
D. To preserve the country’s culture

✔️ Answer: A. To respect the National Anthem
Explanation: It is the duty of every citizen to respect the National Anthem and other national symbols (Article 51A).

✅ 59. Who can enforce the Fundamental Duties of citizens?

A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. Parliament
D. No one, they are non-justiciable

✔️ Answer: D. No one, they are non-justiciable
Explanation: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning that they are not enforceable by any court. They are meant to guide citizens’ moral and civic conduct.

✅ 60. Which of the following duties relates to the protection of public property?

A. To develop a scientific temper
B. To cherish and follow the ideals of the freedom struggle
C. To protect and improve the natural environment
D. To safeguard public property

✔️ Answer: D. To safeguard public property
Explanation: Article 51A includes a duty to safeguard public property and avoid violence.

⚖️ Section 7: Fundamental Rights – GK Questions MCQs

Fundamental Rights are a crucial part of the Indian Constitution, enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35). They ensure individual liberty and equality and protect citizens from state interference. These rights are also an essential part of competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 61. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Education
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Freedom of Speech

✔️ Answer: C. Right to Property
Explanation: The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31 but was later removed by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

✅ 62. Which of the following rights is available to both Indian citizens and non-citizens?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Right against Exploitation

✔️ Answer: D. Right against Exploitation
Explanation: The Right against Exploitation (Article 23 and 24) is available to both citizens and non-citizens in India.

✅ 63. The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression is provided under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

A. Article 19(1)(a)
B. Article 21
C. Article 15
D. Article 17

✔️ Answer: A. Article 19(1)(a)
Explanation: The Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution.

✅ 64. The Constitution of India guarantees which of the following Fundamental Rights?

A. Right to Work
B. Right to Strike
C. Right to Education
D. Right to Privacy

✔️ Answer: C. Right to Education
Explanation: Article 21A of the Constitution guarantees the Right to Education to children aged 6-14 years.

✅ 65. Which of the following is NOT a restriction on the Right to Freedom of Speech?

A. Contempt of court
B. Defamation
C. Incitement to an offense
D. Criticism of the government

✔️ Answer: D. Criticism of the government
Explanation: Criticism of the government is not prohibited under Article 19. However, speech inciting violence or causing harm is restricted.

✅ 66. The right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is given under which Article?

A. Article 32
B. Article 13
C. Article 19
D. Article 21

✔️ Answer: A. Article 32
Explanation: Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies, allowing individuals to approach the Supreme Court to enforce their Fundamental Rights.

✅ 67. Which of the following is a part of the Right to Freedom?

A. Right to assemble peacefully
B. Right to work
C. Right to privacy
D. Right to vote

✔️ Answer: A. Right to assemble peacefully
Explanation: Article 19(1)(b) guarantees the Right to assemble peacefully without arms as part of Right to Freedom.

✅ 68. Which Fundamental Right is available to only Indian citizens?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom of Religion
C. Right to Cultural and Educational Rights
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

✔️ Answer: A. Right to Equality
Explanation: The Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18) is available only to Indian citizens and not to non-citizens.

✅ 69. The Right to Privacy was declared as a Fundamental Right by the Supreme Court in which case?

A. Kesavananda Bharati case
B. Minerva Mills case
C. Maneka Gandhi case
D. Puttaswamy case

✔️ Answer: D. Puttaswamy case
Explanation: In the Puttaswamy case (2017), the Supreme Court declared Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21.

✅ 70. Which of the following is an exception to the Right to Equality?

A. Discrimination on grounds of religion
B. Reservation in education and employment for backward classes
C. Discrimination on grounds of sex
D. Discrimination based on caste

✔️ Answer: B. Reservation in education and employment for backward classes
Explanation: Reservations for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs) are exceptions to the principle of equality under Article 15 and Article 16.

🏛️ Section 8: Directive Principles of State Policy – GK Questions MCQs

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are guidelines or principles set out in Part IV of the Constitution of India. They are not legally enforceable, but they serve as guiding principles for the government in framing policies and laws. Questions related to DPSPs often appear in UPSC, SSC, and State PSC exams.

✅ 71. The Directive Principles of State Policy are provided under which part of the Constitution?

A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part V
D. Part VI

✔️ Answer: B. Part IV
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution under Articles 36 to 51.

✅ 72. Which of the following is a directive principle under the Constitution of India?

A. To provide free and compulsory education to all children up to 14 years
B. To establish a uniform civil code
C. To abolish untouchability
D. To make India a socialist republic

✔️ Answer: A. To provide free and compulsory education to all children up to 14 years
Explanation: Article 45 of the DPSP mandates that the State shall endeavor to provide free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of 14.

✅ 73. Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy?

A. To secure a uniform civil code for all citizens
B. To promote equal justice and free legal aid
C. To secure the rights of minorities
D. To provide reservations for backward classes

✔️ Answer: D. To provide reservations for backward classes
Explanation: Providing reservations is not part of DPSPs but is covered under Fundamental Rights (Article 15 and Article 16).

✅ 74. The Directive Principles of State Policy are:

A. Justiciable
B. Non-justiciable
C. Enforceable in a court of law
D. Fundamental Rights

✔️ Answer: B. Non-justiciable
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by courts but serve as guiding principles for governance.

✅ 75. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions the promotion of international peace and security?

A. Article 39A
B. Article 51
C. Article 47
D. Article 50

✔️ Answer: B. Article 51
Explanation: Article 51 of the DPSP urges the State to promote international peace and security and foster respect for international law.

✅ 76. The provision for a uniform civil code is mentioned under which Article of the Constitution?

A. Article 40
B. Article 44
C. Article 45
D. Article 46

✔️ Answer: B. Article 44
Explanation: Article 44 of the DPSP calls for a uniform civil code for all citizens, aiming for uniformity in personal laws.

✅ 77. Which of the following is included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A. To protect and improve the environment
B. To provide free healthcare
C. To safeguard the rights of citizens
D. To protect the sovereignty of the nation

✔️ Answer: A. To protect and improve the environment
Explanation: Article 48A of the DPSP directs the State to take steps to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.

✅ 78. Which Amendment added a new provision under the Directive Principles for the protection of children’s rights?

A. 44th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 86th Amendment
D. 73rd Amendment

✔️ Answer: C. 86th Amendment
Explanation: The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 added Article 51A(k), making it a duty of every citizen to provide opportunities for the development of children.

✅ 79. The Directive Principles of State Policy are aimed at achieving which of the following?

A. Social justice
B. Economic justice
C. Political justice
D. All of the above

✔️ Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The DPSPs aim to achieve social, economic, and political justice, promoting welfare and equality.

✅ 80. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

A. To impose legal obligations on the government
B. To guide the government in making policies and laws
C. To provide for the enforcement of rights in courts
D. To outline duties of citizens

✔️ Answer: B. To guide the government in making policies and laws
Explanation: The DPSPs are intended to guide the government in forming laws and policies for the welfare of the people.

🚨 Section 9: Emergency Provisions – GK Questions MCQs

The Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution are contained in Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360). They provide the President with the authority to declare an emergency in cases of war, external aggression, or internal disturbance, allowing the central government to take over certain powers. Understanding these provisions is crucial for exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 81. The President of India can declare an emergency under which Article of the Constitution?

A. Article 352
B. Article 360
C. Article 368
D. Article 354

✔️ Answer: A. Article 352
Explanation: Article 352 empowers the President to declare an Emergency in case of war, external aggression, or internal disturbance.

✅ 82. Which type of emergency is mentioned under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution?

A. National Emergency
B. Financial Emergency
C. State Emergency
D. Constitutional Emergency

✔️ Answer: A. National Emergency
Explanation: Article 352 deals with the National Emergency, which can be declared on the grounds of war, external aggression, or internal disturbance.

✅ 83. Under Article 356, what type of emergency can be declared in a state?

A. National Emergency
B. Financial Emergency
C. President's Rule
D. Constitutional Emergency

✔️ Answer: C. President's Rule
Explanation: Article 356 deals with the imposition of President's Rule, which can be declared in any state if the President believes the state government cannot function according to the provisions of the Constitution.

✅ 84. In which year was the National Emergency first declared in India?

A. 1962
B. 1971
C. 1975
D. 1990

✔️ Answer: C. 1975
Explanation: The first National Emergency in India was declared on June 25, 1975, by then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi due to internal disturbances.

✅ 85. What is the maximum duration of a National Emergency declared under Article 352?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. Indefinite, with approval

✔️ Answer: D. Indefinite, with approval
Explanation: A National Emergency can initially be declared for 6 months, but it can be extended indefinitely with the approval of the Parliament every 6 months.

✅ 86. Under which Article of the Constitution can the President proclaim a Financial Emergency?

A. Article 360
B. Article 352
C. Article 356
D. Article 368

✔️ Answer: A. Article 360
Explanation: Article 360 deals with the declaration of a Financial Emergency, which can be proclaimed by the President if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of it is threatened.

✅ 87. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of a National Emergency?

A. Suspension of Fundamental Rights
B. Dissolution of Lok Sabha
C. Extension of the President’s Rule in states
D. Centralization of power

✔️ Answer: B. Dissolution of Lok Sabha
Explanation: During a National Emergency, the Lok Sabha is not dissolved; instead, the President’s Rule may be extended in states, and power is centralized in the central government.

✅ 88. How long can President's Rule (Article 356) be imposed in a state?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 3 years

✔️ Answer: C. 1 year
Explanation: President’s Rule can be imposed for a maximum of 1 year at a time, but it can be extended with the approval of Parliament for up to 3 years.

✅ 89. Who approves the proclamation of National Emergency by the President?

A. The Supreme Court
B. The Parliament
C. The Council of Ministers
D. The Vice President

✔️ Answer: B. The Parliament
Explanation: The National Emergency declared by the President must be approved by the Parliament within one month of the proclamation.

✅ 90. Which of the following rights can be suspended during a National Emergency?

A. Right to Life
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom of Speech
D. Right to Protection against arrest and detention

✔️ Answer: D. Right to Protection against arrest and detention
Explanation: During a National Emergency, the Right to Protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 can be suspended by the President.

📝 Section 10: Amendment of the Constitution – GK Questions MCQs

The process of amending the Indian Constitution is outlined in Article 368. The Constitution can be amended to address changing needs and challenges, but it requires a special procedure. Questions related to the Amendment of the Constitution are important for competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 91. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for its amendment?

A. Article 368
B. Article 356
C. Article 32
D. Article 14

✔️ Answer: A. Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 deals with the procedure for amending the Indian Constitution. Amendments can be made through Parliament by a special procedure.

✅ 92. Which of the following is NOT a method for amending the Indian Constitution?

A. By a resolution in the Parliament
B. By the President's proclamation
C. By a law passed by both Houses of Parliament
D. By a constitutional amendment bill

✔️ Answer: B. By the President's proclamation
Explanation: Amendments to the Constitution cannot be made through the President’s proclamation. They must be made by passing a constitutional amendment bill through both Houses of Parliament.

✅ 93. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is known as the 'Mini Constitution'. Which of the following provisions was added by this amendment?

A. Fundamental Duties
B. Right to Education
C. Reservation for OBCs
D. Special status to Jammu and Kashmir

✔️ Answer: A. Fundamental Duties
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A in the Constitution.

✅ 94. How many types of amendments are there in the Indian Constitution?

A. 2 types
B. 3 types
C. 4 types
D. 5 types

✔️ Answer: B. 3 types
Explanation: There are three types of amendments:

Simple majority (Article 368)
Special majority
Ratification by states

✅ 95. What is required for an amendment to the Indian Constitution?

A. Simple majority of Parliament
B. Special majority of both Houses of Parliament
C. Ratification by the President
D. Ratification by the Supreme Court

✔️ Answer: B. Special majority of both Houses of Parliament
Explanation: An amendment to the Constitution requires a special majority of both Houses of Parliament. In some cases, ratification by states is also required.

✅ 96. The 73rd and 74th Amendments of the Indian Constitution pertain to which aspect?

A. Panchayati Raj and Municipalities
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Emergency Provisions

✔️ Answer: A. Panchayati Raj and Municipalities
Explanation: The 73rd and 74th Amendments gave constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj System and Municipalities in India, empowering local self-governments.

✅ 97. Which Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?

A. 44th Amendment
B. 61st Amendment
C. 73rd Amendment
D. 86th Amendment

✔️ Answer: B. 61st Amendment
Explanation: The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 lowered the minimum voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years.

✅ 98. Which of the following is the primary method for amending the Indian Constitution?

A. By the President’s order
B. By a referendum
C. By a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament
D. By a Supreme Court judgment

✔️ Answer: C. By a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament
Explanation: Amendments to the Constitution are generally made by introducing a constitutional amendment bill in Parliament, which must be passed by a special majority.

✅ 99. Which of the following was the first amendment to the Indian Constitution?

A. 1st Amendment Act of 1950
B. 2nd Amendment Act of 1952
C. 10th Amendment Act of 1960
D. 42nd Amendment Act of 1976

✔️ Answer: A. 1st Amendment Act of 1950
Explanation: The 1st Amendment Act of 1950 was the first amendment to the Indian Constitution and it made provisions regarding freedom of speech and the right to property.

✅ 100. Which Amendment introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine in the Indian Constitution?

A. 44th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 61st Amendment
D. 52nd Amendment

✔️ Answer: B. 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, in 1976, laid the foundation for the Basic Structure Doctrine, which the Supreme Court later reinforced in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

🏛️ Section 11: Union and State Legislature – GK Questions MCQs

The Union and State Legislatures play a crucial role in the legislative process in India. The Union Legislature (Parliament) consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, while the State Legislature consists of the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly) and Vidhan Parishad (Legislary Council). Understanding their functions, powers, and the process of legislation is important for UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 101. The Parliament of India consists of which of the following?

A. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President
B. Lok Sabha and the President
C. Rajya Sabha and the President
D. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the Prime Minister

✔️ Answer: A. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President
Explanation: The Parliament of India consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, and the President.

✅ 102. How many members are there in the Lok Sabha?

A. 500
B. 545
C. 600
D. 250

✔️ Answer: B. 545
Explanation: The Lok Sabha consists of 545 members, of which 543 are directly elected and 2 are nominated by the President.

✅ 103. Which of the following is the upper house of the Parliament of India?

A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. Vidhan Parishad

✔️ Answer: B. Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India, and its members are elected by the members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

✅ 104. How many members can the Rajya Sabha have at the maximum?

A. 200
B. 250
C. 300
D. 500

✔️ Answer: B. 250
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum of 250 members, including 238 elected members and 12 nominated members by the President.

✅ 105. What is the maximum duration of a Lok Sabha?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

✔️ Answer: B. 5 years
Explanation: The Lok Sabha has a maximum duration of 5 years from the date of its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier by the President.

✅ 106. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Parliament of India?

A. Making laws
B. Controlling the executive
C. Representing the people
D. Running the government

✔️ Answer: D. Running the government
Explanation: The Parliament is primarily responsible for making laws, controlling the executive, and representing the people. The actual task of running the government is handled by the Executive (the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers).

✅ 107. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the creation of the Rajya Sabha?

A. Article 79
B. Article 80
C. Article 101
D. Article 125

✔️ Answer: B. Article 80
Explanation: Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of the Rajya Sabha.

✅ 108. The President of India is a member of which house of Parliament?

A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
D. None of the above

✔️ Answer: D. None of the above
Explanation: The President of India is not a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, although they play an important role in the functioning of Parliament.

✅ 109. Who is responsible for the conduct of business in the Lok Sabha?

A. President of India
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister of India
D. Vice-President of India

✔️ Answer: B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is responsible for the conduct of business in the Lok Sabha.

✅ 110. What is the role of the Rajya Sabha in the law-making process?

A. It cannot make laws
B. It can make laws, but the Lok Sabha has more power
C. It can only suggest amendments to laws
D. It makes laws independently of the Lok Sabha

✔️ Answer: B. It can make laws, but the Lok Sabha has more power
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha can make laws and propose amendments, but the Lok Sabha has the final say in most cases. Rajya Sabha acts as a revising chamber.

✅ 111. Who appoints the members of the Rajya Sabha?

A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Chief Justice of India
D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

✔️ Answer: A. The President
Explanation: The President of India nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha, while the rest are elected by the State Legislative Assemblies.

✅ 112. The Vidhan Sabha is the lower house of which legislature?

A. Parliament of India
B. State Legislature
C. Zila Panchayat
D. Gram Panchayat

✔️ Answer: B. State Legislature
Explanation: The Vidhan Sabha is the lower house of the State Legislature. Each state in India has a Vidhan Sabha.

⚖️ Section 12: Judiciary and Judicial Review – GK Questions MCQs

The Judiciary in India plays a vital role in interpreting and upholding the Constitution. The Supreme Court of India stands at the apex, with High Courts in each state and subordinate courts at the district level. Understanding the structure, powers, and functions of the judiciary is essential for competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 113. Which of the following is the highest court in India?

A. High Court
B. District Court
C. Supreme Court
D. Sessions Court

✔️ Answer: C. Supreme Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the highest court in India, serving as the final appellate court and also having original jurisdiction in certain cases.

✅ 114. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Supreme Court established?

A. Article 124
B. Article 145
C. Article 32
D. Article 356

✔️ Answer: A. Article 124
Explanation: Article 124 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Supreme Court of India and defines its jurisdiction and powers.

✅ 115. How many judges are there in the Supreme Court of India, including the Chief Justice of India?

A. 20
B. 24
C. 26
D. 34

✔️ Answer: C. 26
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India consists of a total of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice of India. This number can vary by law.

✅ 116. What is the maximum tenure of a Judge of the Supreme Court?

A. 5 years
B. 60 years of age
C. 65 years of age
D. 70 years of age

✔️ Answer: C. 65 years of age
Explanation: A Supreme Court judge can hold office until they reach the age of 65 years, after which they retire.

✅ 117. Which of the following is the function of the judiciary in India?

A. To make laws
B. To execute laws
C. To interpret laws
D. To pass policies

✔️ Answer: C. To interpret laws
Explanation: The primary function of the judiciary is to interpret laws and ensure that they are followed according to the Constitution.

✅ 118. Which of the following is NOT a power of the Supreme Court of India?

A. Judicial review
B. Issuing writs
C. Impeachment of the President
D. Appellate jurisdiction

✔️ Answer: C. Impeachment of the President
Explanation: The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review, can issue writs, and has appellate jurisdiction. However, the impeachment of the President is not done by the Supreme Court but through a parliamentary process.

✅ 119. What is the concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in India?

A. Judiciary can remove the President from office
B. Judiciary can review laws made by Parliament
C. Judiciary can make laws
D. Judiciary can dissolve the Parliament

✔️ Answer: B. Judiciary can review laws made by Parliament
Explanation: Judicial review allows the judiciary to review the constitutionality of laws passed by the Parliament. If a law is found unconstitutional, it can be struck down.

✅ 120. Which of the following writs is issued to command the performance of a public duty by a public authority?

A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Certiorari
D. Prohibition

✔️ Answer: B. Mandamus
Explanation: The Mandamus writ is issued by a higher court to command a lower court or public authority to perform a specific duty that is required by law.

✅ 121. The concept of Basic Structure Doctrine is related to which of the following?

A. The Supreme Court’s power of judicial review
B. The Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution
C. The President’s power to dissolve Parliament
D. The role of the Vice President in the Rajya Sabha

✔️ Answer: A. The Supreme Court’s power of judicial review
Explanation: The Basic Structure Doctrine was established by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). It asserts that certain parts of the Constitution cannot be altered, even by Parliament.

✅ 122. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?

A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Parliament
D. The Chief Justice of India himself

✔️ Answer: A. The President of India
Explanation: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India, based on the seniority of the judges.

✅ 123. In which case did the Supreme Court assert the power of Judicial Review for the first time?

A. Kesavananda Bharati case
B. Golaknath case
C. Minerva Mills case
D. Maneka Gandhi case

✔️ Answer: A. Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the Basic Structure Doctrine and asserted the power of Judicial Review by the Supreme Court.

✅ 124. Which of the following is a power of the High Courts in India?

A. Original jurisdiction over matters of national importance
B. Judicial review of state laws
C. Appointment of Union Ministers
D. Dissolution of State Legislative Assemblies

✔️ Answer: B. Judicial review of state laws
Explanation: The High Courts have the power of judicial review over state laws, ensuring that they comply with the Constitution.

⚖️ Section 12: Judiciary and Judicial Review – GK Questions MCQs

✅ 113. Which of the following is the highest court in India?

A. High Court
B. District Court
C. Supreme Court
D. Sessions Court

✔️ Answer: C. Supreme Court
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the highest court in India, serving as the final appellate court and also having original jurisdiction in certain cases.

✅ 114. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Supreme Court established?

A. Article 124
B. Article 145
C. Article 32
D. Article 356

✔️ Answer: A. Article 124
Explanation: Article 124 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Supreme Court of India and defines its jurisdiction and powers.

✅ 115. How many judges are there in the Supreme Court of India, including the Chief Justice of India?

A. 20
B. 24
C. 26
D. 34

✔️ Answer: C. 26
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India consists of a total of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice of India. This number can vary by law.

✅ 116. What is the maximum tenure of a Judge of the Supreme Court?

A. 5 years
B. 60 years of age
C. 65 years of age
D. 70 years of age

✔️ Answer: C. 65 years of age
Explanation: A Supreme Court judge can hold office until they reach the age of 65 years, after which they retire.

✅ 117. Which of the following is the function of the judiciary in India?

A. To make laws
B. To execute laws
C. To interpret laws
D. To pass policies

✔️ Answer: C. To interpret laws
Explanation: The primary function of the judiciary is to interpret laws and ensure that they are followed according to the Constitution.

✅ 118. Which of the following is NOT a power of the Supreme Court of India?

A. Judicial review
B. Issuing writs
C. Impeachment of the President
D. Appellate jurisdiction

✅ 119. What is the concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in India?

A. Judiciary can remove the President from office
B. Judiciary can review laws made by Parliament
C. Judiciary can make laws
D. Judiciary can dissolve the Parliament

✅ 120. Which of the following writs is issued to command the performance of a public duty by a public authority?

A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Certiorari
D. Prohibition

✔️ Answer: B. Mandamus
Explanation: The Mandamus writ is issued by a higher court to command a lower court or public authority to perform a specific duty that is required by law.

✅ 121. The concept of Basic Structure Doctrine is related to which of the following?

✅ 122. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?

A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Parliament
D. The Chief Justice of India himself

✔️ Answer: A. The President of India
Explanation: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India, based on the seniority of the judges.

✅ 123. In which case did the Supreme Court assert the power of Judicial Review for the first time?

A. Kesavananda Bharati case
B. Golaknath case
C. Minerva Mills case
D. Maneka Gandhi case

✅ 124. Which of the following is a power of the High Courts in India?

A. Original jurisdiction over matters of national importance
B. Judicial review of state laws
C. Appointment of Union Ministers
D. Dissolution of State Legislative Assemblies

✔️ Answer: B. Judicial review of state laws
Explanation: The High Courts have the power of judicial review over state laws, ensuring that they comply with the Constitution.

🚨 Section 14: Emergency Provisions in the Constitution – GK Questions MCQs

The Emergency Provisions in the Indian Constitution provide the framework for the government to manage extraordinary situations that threaten national security, stability, or governance. These provisions are outlined under Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) of the Constitution. Understanding these provisions is crucial for competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 137. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can a National Emergency be declared?

A. Article 352
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 370

✔️ Answer: A. Article 352
Explanation: A National Emergency can be declared under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution when there is a threat to the security of India or any part of it due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.

✅ 138. Which of the following is NOT a ground for declaring a National Emergency under Article 352?

A. War
B. External Aggression
C. Internal Disturbance
D. Famine

✔️ Answer: D. Famine
Explanation: A National Emergency can be declared under Article 352 due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion, but famine is not a ground for declaring such an emergency.

✅ 139. What is the maximum duration for a National Emergency under the Indian Constitution?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months

✔️ Answer: C. 12 months
Explanation: A National Emergency can be declared for a maximum period of 6 months, but it can be extended indefinitely by approval from the Parliament.

✅ 140. Who has the authority to declare a State of Emergency in India?

A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Chief Justice of India
D. The Union Cabinet

✔️ Answer: A. The President of India
Explanation: The President of India has the power to declare a State of Emergency under Article 352, based on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

✅ 141. What is the maximum duration for which a State Emergency (President's Rule) can be imposed in a state?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months

✔️ Answer: C. 12 months
Explanation: A State Emergency (also known as President's Rule) can be imposed for a maximum period of 6 months, but it can be extended for another 6 months with approval from Parliament, up to a maximum of 3 years.

✅ 142. Under which Article can a President’s Rule be imposed in a state?

A. Article 356
B. Article 352
C. Article 360
D. Article 370

✔️ Answer: A. Article 356
Explanation: Article 356 allows the President of India to impose President’s Rule in a state, also known as State Emergency, when the government in the state cannot function according to the provisions of the Constitution.

✅ 143. During an Emergency, which of the following is true about the Fundamental Rights of citizens?

A. They are suspended completely
B. They are suspended except for the Right to Life and Personal Liberty
C. They remain unaffected
D. They are altered

✔️ Answer: B. They are suspended except for the Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Explanation: During an Emergency, Fundamental Rights are suspended, except for Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21, which cannot be suspended.

✅ 144. What is the maximum period for which the President’s Rule (State Emergency) can be extended in a state?

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

✔️ Answer: C. 3 years
Explanation: The President’s Rule can be extended up to a maximum period of 3 years, with approval from Parliament after every 6 months.

✅ 145. What is the significance of the Financial Emergency under Article 360?

A. It allows the President to dissolve the state legislature
B. It allows the President to take control of the state economy
C. It can be declared only by the Prime Minister
D. It impacts the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the states

✔️ Answer: D. It impacts the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the states
Explanation: A Financial Emergency under Article 360 can be declared if the President is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or any part of it is threatened. It allows the Centre to control the financial resources of states.

✅ 146. How many times has a National Emergency been declared in India till 2025?

A. Once
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Four times

✔️ Answer: C. Three times
Explanation: A National Emergency has been declared in India three times: in 1962 (China War), 1971 (India-Pakistan War), and 1975 (during internal disturbances under the Emergency imposed by Indira Gandhi).

✅ 147. What is the effect of a National Emergency on the powers of the States?

A. States lose all legislative powers
B. State laws become invalid
C. The Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List
D. States cannot conduct elections

✔️ Answer: C. The Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List
Explanation: During a National Emergency, the Parliament can make laws on matters enumerated in the State List and has the authority to override state governments.

✅ 148. When a National Emergency is declared, the President can suspend the enforcement of which Fundamental Right?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom of Speech
C. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
D. Right against Exploitation

✔️ Answer: C. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Explanation: The Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21) is the only Fundamental Right that cannot be suspended even during an emergency.

📝 Section 15: Amendment of the Constitution – GK Questions MCQs

The Amendment process is one of the most important features of the Indian Constitution. It allows for changes to be made to the Constitution as per the evolving needs of the society and state. The process is outlined in Article 368. Understanding how the Constitution can be amended is crucial for competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 149. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment procedure?

A. Article 350
B. Article 368
C. Article 356
D. Article 370

✔️ Answer: B. Article 368
Explanation: Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution.

✅ 150. What is the minimum requirement for the approval of an amendment by the Parliament?

A. Majority of votes in the Lok Sabha
B. Majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha
C. Simple majority in both Houses
D. Special majority in both Houses

✔️ Answer: D. Special majority in both Houses
Explanation: Amendments to the Indian Constitution require a special majority in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, as well as, in some cases, ratification by half of the state legislatures.

✅ 151. Which of the following requires the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures?

A. Simple majority amendment
B. Special majority amendment
C. Amendment affecting federal provisions
D. Amendment to the Directive Principles of State Policy

✔️ Answer: C. Amendment affecting federal provisions
Explanation: Amendments that affect the federal provisions, such as changes to the distribution of powers between the Centre and States (like changes to the State List), require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

✅ 152. Which of the following is NOT a method of amending the Indian Constitution?

A. By Parliament through a special majority
B. By Parliament with the approval of a simple majority
C. By a joint session of Parliament and the President
D. By the President’s discretion

✔️ Answer: C. By a joint session of Parliament and the President
Explanation: Amendments are not passed by a joint session of the Parliament and the President. The amendment process requires a special majority in Parliament, and in some cases, ratification by state legislatures.

✅ 153. Which of the following provisions is related to the amendment of the fundamental rights?

A. They cannot be amended
B. Only through a simple majority
C. They can be amended by Parliament with a special majority
D. They can only be amended by the President

✔️ Answer: C. They can be amended by Parliament with a special majority
Explanation: Fundamental Rights can be amended by Parliament through the special majority procedure, although they have a unique status under the Constitution.

✅ 154. Which amendment of the Indian Constitution is popularly known as the ‘Mini Constitution’?

A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 52nd Amendment
D. 61st Amendment

✔️ Answer: A. 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of 1976 is known as the ‘Mini Constitution’ because it made comprehensive changes to the Constitution, including modifications to the Preamble, the Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Rights.

✅ 155. Who is responsible for initiating the amendment process of the Indian Constitution?

A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. Any Member of Parliament or State Legislature
D. Either House of Parliament

✔️ Answer: D. Either House of Parliament
Explanation: An amendment to the Indian Constitution can be initiated in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) by introducing a Bill that requires approval by a special majority in both Houses.

✅ 156. Which of the following can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament?

A. The Preamble of the Constitution
B. The representation of States in the Parliament
C. The distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States
D. The Form of Government in the Constitution

✔️ Answer: B. The representation of States in the Parliament
Explanation: The representation of States in Parliament can be altered by a simple majority in Parliament, as it is part of the Constitution's provisions on the federal structure, not a fundamental aspect.

✅ 157. Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution was related to reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Tribes?

A. 42nd Amendment
B. 73rd Amendment
C. 91st Amendment
D. 104th Amendment

✔️ Answer: D. 104th Amendment
Explanation: The 104th Amendment (2019) to the Indian Constitution extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for another 10 years.

✅ 158. What is the maximum number of times that the Indian Constitution can be amended?

A. One time
B. As many times as necessary
C. Only once every 10 years
D. After a period of 25 years

✔️ Answer: B. As many times as necessary
Explanation: The Indian Constitution does not have a fixed number of amendments. It can be amended as many times as necessary to address evolving needs, as long as the amendment follows the prescribed procedure.

✅ 159. Which of the following provisions is NOT amendable under Article 368 of the Indian Constitution?

A. The federal structure of the Constitution
B. The fundamental rights of citizens
C. The Preamble
D. The secular character of the Indian Republic

✔️ Answer: C. The Preamble
Explanation: While many provisions can be amended, the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is generally considered non-amendable under Article 368 since it reflects the core values and objectives of the Constitution.

⚖️ Section 16: The Judiciary – GK Questions MCQs

The Judiciary plays a crucial role in upholding the Rule of Law and safeguarding Fundamental Rights in India. It has been empowered to review laws and ensure they comply with the Constitution. The Judiciary in India is an independent and essential branch of government, and understanding its structure is important for competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, and State PSCs.

✅ 160. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the independence of the Judiciary guaranteed?

A. Article 50
B. Article 124
C. Article 121
D. Article 212

✔️ Answer: B. Article 124
Explanation: Article 124 guarantees the independence of the Judiciary by providing the procedure for the appointment of Supreme Court Judges and ensuring their security of tenure.

✅ 161. The power of judicial review is vested in which body in India?

A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Supreme Court of India
D. High Court of India

✔️ Answer: C. Supreme Court of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review, allowing it to review the constitutionality of laws passed by the Parliament and the state legislatures.

✅ 162. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?

A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister of India
C. The Parliament
D. The Governor of the State

✔️ Answer: A. The President of India
Explanation: The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of India. The appointment is made based on the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice and the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

✅ 163. How many judges currently constitute the Supreme Court of India?

A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 34

✔️ Answer: D. 34
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India currently consists of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice. However, this number may vary as the President of India can increase it by amending the law.

✅ 164. Under which Article does the Supreme Court of India have original jurisdiction?

A. Article 136
B. Article 131
C. Article 142
D. Article 123

✔️ Answer: B. Article 131
Explanation: Article 131 grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in cases that involve disputes between the Union of India and one or more states, or between states themselves.

✅ 165. What is the maximum number of judges that the Supreme Court of India can have?

A. 15
B. 25
C. 30
D. 34

✔️ Answer: D. 34
Explanation: As per the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956, the Supreme Court of India can have a maximum of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice of India.

✅ 166. Who can remove a judge of the Supreme Court of India from office?

A. The President of India, after a recommendation by the Parliament
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Parliament, through a simple majority
D. The President of India, after a recommendation by the Governor

✔️ Answer: A. The President of India, after a recommendation by the Parliament
Explanation: A Supreme Court judge can be removed by the President of India, but only after the Parliament passes a resolution with a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.

✅ 167. Which of the following is NOT a power of the Supreme Court of India?

A. Issuing writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
B. Reviewing the constitutionality of laws
C. Providing advisory opinions to the President of India
D. Imposing taxes

✔️ Answer: D. Imposing taxes
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India has the power to issue writs, review laws, and give advisory opinions to the President, but it does not have the power to impose taxes.

✅ 168. The Supreme Court of India was established by which of the following?

A. The Government of India Act, 1935
B. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
C. The Constitution of India
D. The Indian Councils Act, 1909

✔️ Answer: C. The Constitution of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India was established under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution, which came into force on January 26, 1950.

✅ 169. What is the role of the Chief Justice of India in the appointment of other judges?

A. The Chief Justice has no role in the appointment of judges
B. The Chief Justice appoints judges solely
C. The Chief Justice is the principal figure in the collegium system for recommending appointments
D. The Chief Justice has the final veto on all appointments

✔️ Answer: C. The Chief Justice is the principal figure in the collegium system for recommending appointments
Explanation: The Chief Justice of India plays a pivotal role in the collegium system, where a group of senior judges of the Supreme Court recommends the appointment of judges to the Court.

✅ 170. Which Article provides for the establishment of High Courts in India?

A. Article 214
B. Article 241
C. Article 215
D. Article 230

✔️ Answer: A. Article 214
Explanation: Article 214 provides for the establishment of High Courts in each state (except for states like Nagaland, Sikkim, etc., where a common High Court may serve multiple states).

✅ 171. What is the tenure of the judges of the High Court?

A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. Until the age of 62 years
D. Until the age of 65 years

✔️ Answer: D. Until the age of 65 years
Explanation: Judges of the High Court hold office until the age of 65 years, after which they retire, according to Article 217 of the Indian Constitution.

✅ 172. The power of judicial review is an essential feature of the Indian Constitution. Who is responsible for exercising this power?

A. The Supreme Court and High Courts
B. Only the Supreme Court
C. The President
D. The Parliament

✔️ Answer: A. The Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation: Judicial review is a power exercised by both the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts to examine whether the laws and executive actions comply with the Constitution.